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What is the required distance to climb to flight level (FL) 75 after a departure from an airfield which is located at a pressure altitude of 3000 ft with an initial mass of 3000 lbs? OAT at airfield: …
“Automated review: removed leftover German annex reference ("Siehe Anlage 15") from stem”
In what situation is it appropriate to set the transponder code 7600?
“Automated answer-key correction”
What is the meaning of a steady red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?
“Automated answer-key correction”
When an aircraft is unable to establish communication due to airborne equipment failure it shall, when so equipped, squawk
“Automated answer-key correction”
What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?
“Automated answer-key correction”
In which situations should a pilot use blind transmissions?
“Automated answer-key correction”
What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?
“Automated answer-key correction”
On what frequency shall a blind transmission be made?
“Automated answer-key correction”
How often shall a blind transmission be made?
“Automated answer-key correction”
Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?
“Automated answer-key correction”
Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is:
“Automated content correction”
In procedural (non-radar) airspace in IMC, you reach the cleared altitude 8 NM before a compulsory reporting point, then suffer radio failure. How long must you maintain the last assigned altitude?
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On which frequency does the NDB Klagenfurt transmit? See annex (PFP-021)
“Automated review: corrected question grammar/spelling (PPL exam source text)”
On which frequency does the VOR/DME Villach transmit? See annex (PFP-036)
“Automated review: corrected question grammar/spelling (PPL exam source text)”
(EASA ATPL 2026) Formation of local supersonic flow and shocks causes which symptom?
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
(EASA ATPL 2026) Shock-induced boundary layer separation leads to:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
(EASA ATPL) Critical Mach number is the free stream Mach number at which:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct?
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Critical Mach number is defined as:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Drag divergence Mach number is when:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Identify which of the following is the correct formula for Mach number:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
If the temperature of air in a uniform streamtube is raised (velocity V in streamtube), then:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Mach tuck is best described as:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Shock induced separation causes:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
The immediate pilot correction for Mach tuck is to:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
To counter Mach tuck the pilot should:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Transonic effects are most influential when some parts of the wing are at:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
Transonic effects are most marked when:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
What happens to airflow immediately after passing through a normal shock wave?
“Automated review: corrected answer key (normal shock does not deflect flow; CAE Oxford reference)”
When supersonic airflow encounters a shock wave, what occurs?
“Automated review: corrected answer key (density increases through a shock; CAE Oxford reference)”
Under ISA conditions, what is true about performance during the climb?
“Automated review: corrected answer key (CAE Oxford / aerodynamics reference)”
The influence of weight (wing loading) on the formation of shock waves is:
“Automated review: corrected answer key (higher wing loading raises CL, lowering MCRIT; CAE Oxford reference)”
What is the relationship between wing loading and the formation of shock waves at transonic speeds?
“Automated review: corrected answer key (higher wing loading lowers MCRIT; CAE Oxford reference)”
On a VFR flight, before reaching a compulsory reporting point, the received ATIS states 4000 m visibility. What is necessary to enter the CTR?
“Automated content correction”
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is equal to:
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Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is
“Automated review: corrected answer key to EASA definition (MZFM = maximum permissible mass with no usable fuel; CAE Oxford M&B)”
The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the mass for the crew is 545 kg, the Dry Operating Mass is…
“Automated review: corrected answer key (crew is already included in DOM; DOM = TOM − traffic load − fuel = 42000 kg; CAE Oxford M&B)”
Basic Empty Mass (BEM) is
“Automated review: corrected answer key (BEM is a component of DOM; TOM − traffic load = Operating Mass, not BEM; CAE Oxford M&B)”
On which frequency does the DVOR/DME Salzburg transmit? See annex (NAV-008)
“Automated content correction”
(For this question, use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Planning a flight from EDWH (Oldenburg Hatten) to EDWF (Leer Papenburg), the following conditions apply: Cruise level = FL 65 Te…
“Automated content correction”
(For this question use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) For planning a VFR flight, the following data are given: Flight time with planning "overhead-overhead" = 2h 42min Pressure Altitu…
“Automated content correction”
Comparing rain to drizzle, visibility will generally:
“Automated review: corrected option wording — drizzle reduces visibility more than rain for a given intensity (CAE Oxford).”
Snow will not reach the surface unless the air temperature at ground level is
“Automated review: corrected answer key — snow can reach the surface up to about +4°C, not only below 0°C (CAE Oxford Meteorology).”
Precipitation in the form of snow will not reach the surface unless the surface temperature is
“Automated review: corrected answer key — snow can reach the surface up to about +4°C, not only below 0°C (CAE Oxford Meteorology).”
What would be reflected to radar?
“Automated review: corrected answer key — weather-radar returns are strongest from large hydrometeors such as hail, not from cloud droplets.”
Snow will not reach the surface unless the air temperature at ground level is
“Automated content correction”
Precipitation in the form of snow will not reach the surface unless the surface temperature is
“Automated content correction”
What would be reflected to radar?
“Automated content correction”
If you observe drizzle falling, the cloud above you is most likely to be which type?
“Automated content correction”
Comparing rain to drizzle, visibility will generally:
“Automated content correction”
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